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Originally Posted by xor
I don't understand how a blanket statement like that can be accepted academically. Or is it a wealth/class thing?
My rationale behind it is because there are plenty of 'white' males who are lacking in life and aren't exactly privileged. E.g. Divorced parents, poor, drug/alcohol addictions, deviancy, etc. How would that get accounted for in such research?
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Except that it isn't a blanket statement - it's a descriptor for how certain forces within particular societies operate. Just like any other field it's a piece of jargon to condense a whole lot of ideas into a short phrase that saves time in discussions within the field (instead of having to qualify every little thing - one phrase instead of 5 pages of explaining).
If you seriously want to understand some of rationales behind it I do strongly suggest just having a look at the
wikipedia page on the idea - it's pretty good and does cover where the idea came from, what fields constituted it (and how different fields constitute it differently), how it has developed over time AND the critiques of it (including all the questions you asked above about how things are accounted for in research) as a term and where it has weakness.
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Cory Weinburg, writing for Inside Higher Ed, has also stated that the concept of white privilege is frequently misinterpreted by non-academics because it is an academic concept that has been recently been brought into the mainstream.
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